FORM TWO MID-TERM SERIES

WELCOME TO FORM TWO MID-TERM SERIES

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM TWO MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

012                                                                               HISTORY

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consist of sections A, B and C

2. Answer ALL questions in question A and B and TWO questions from section C

3. Write your full names at the top of every page

4. All answers must be written in the spaces provided.

SECTION A (40 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the following items (i – x) choose the correct answer from among of given alternatives and write its letter beside the item number:

i) A state in which people from one community got in to contact with one another.

1. Communication.
2. Contacts.
3. Trade.
4. Interaction.

ii). The North African people were interacting with people from West Africa mainly through.

1. Indian Ocean.
2. Transition.
3. Trans-continental trade.
4. Trans-Saharan trade.

iii) One of the outcomes of Boers trek in South Africa was

1. The discovery of Black continent.
2. The rise of mfecane war.
3. Colonization of South Africa.
4. The discovery of minerals.

iv)  The famous societies which involved in long distance trade in East Africa were:

1. Kamba, Makonde and Yao.
2. Chagga, Maasai and Meru.
3. Kikuyu, Somali and Galla.
4. Yao, Kamba and Nyamwezi.

v) The following is the importance of Trans-Saharan trade to Western Sudan:

1. It helped to introduce new ideas.
2. It helped empires to emerge in Western Sudan.
3. It helped to introduce Islamic civilization.
4. All the above.

vi)A major step in the series of economic process that bring goods and services to the people. 

1. Industry.
2. Production.
3. Primitive.
4. Market.

vii) The Dutch who settled in South Africa were from

1. Oman.
2. Holland.
3. France.
4. Germany.

viii) The early development of animal and plant domestication.

1. Revolution.
2. Neolithic Revolution.
3. Agriculture.
4. Carbon 14 method.

ix) The following are functions of a Moran, except.

1. To protect  the whole society.
2. To control religion and solve conflicts.
3. To defend and protect the protectorate.
4. To travel in search of water and grases.

X) A rulling system in which two or more communities or governments rule the same territory and people is known as;

1. Power separation.
2. Power sharing.
3. Self-rule.
4. Democracy.

xi) Which of these is the best description of homo-sapiens

1. Early man
2. Man the tool maker
3. The modern man
4. The Thinki man.

xii. Scholars whose work is to study historical remains are called;

1. Anthropologists
2. Archeologists
3. Geologists
4. Ethnographers
5. Herbalist.

xiii. The ………….acts as history teachers  in oral traditions

1. Rulers
2. Iron smiths
3. Elders
4. Grand parents
5. Colonialists

xiv. The archiologist who discovered the skull of earlier man in east Africa was;

1. Dr. David Livingstone
2. Dr. Washington
3. Dr. Louis Leakey
4. Vasco da Gama

xv.  Pubbles chopping and hand axes were used during

1. The middle stone age
2. The late stone age
3. The earlier stone age
4. The iron age.

xvi. Which society practiced pastrolism in south Africa among the following

1. The xhosa
2. The Fulani
3. The boers
4. The KhoiKhoi

xvii. Fire was discovered during,

1. Old stone age
2. Middle stone age
3. Late stone age
4. Iron age

xviii. Ubugabire system in interlacustrine region the power of the rule was usually based on;

1. Cattle ownership
2. Land ownership
3. Land and cattle ownership
4. Military and land ownership

xix. One important effect of iron technology in Africa was

1. Expansion of heavy industries
2. Expansion of agriculture production
3. Increase of civil war
4. Increased trading activities

xx. The following were the main participants in long distance trade;

1. Kikuyu, yao, kamba
2. Kamba, kikuyu, Gogo
3. Chagga, Kamba, Gogo
4. Kamba, yao, Nyamwezi

2. (a)Match the items in LIST B with those provided in LIST A by writing correct number in the space provided

LIST A

LIST B

i. The earliest social organization from which society has passed through. ii. one among the ngoni leaders iii. movement of the dutch from cape town to interior of south Africa. iv. places created for preserving historical information. v. agriculture means vi. Tanzania is made up of four main language groups vii. depopulation. viii. examples of goods produced in west Africa. ix. population x. Laibon

A. The boer treck b. museums c. primitive communalism d. shaka Zulu e. cultivation of crops and animal keeping f. bantu, nilotes, cushites Khoisan g. gold, ivory. Kola nuts, leather, clothes h. increases of people in a specific area i. Theory proposed by Darwin j. is the leader of maasai Society k. Decrease in number of people.

3. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if the statement is not correct

1. The Ngoni brought war and disrupted trade activities to a peaceful areas ______
2. Zwangandaba was a tribal leaders in Tanzania who organized long distance trade_______
3. The Ngoni did not bring any effect to East African societies_______
4. The social factors for interaction among the people of Africa resulted into population increase_______
5. Rusinga Island and Nsongezi are famous historical sites found in Kenya_______
6. Before the colonial period, all the societies in East Africa were patrilineal_______
7. Clan was a basic unit of production_______
8. Agriculture is an economic activity of growing of crops_______
9. Khoisan, Dorobo, Sandawe, Kiko, Hadzabe and Tindiga are some African societies which are still practicing feudalism________
10. The form of feudalism that existed along the East African Coast was known as Umwinyi______

4.  Give brief explanation on the following terms;

1. Social organization

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

1. Historical sites 

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

1. Slave

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

1. Communalism

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

1. Barter trade 

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

                                          SECTION B. ( 30 Marks).

                                Answer all questions in this section 

 5. Arrange the following sentences in a chronological order by writing their Roman numbers in the table provided. 

  I. These caves were usually near sourses of water 

ii. These activities have earned them the name " early hunting and gathering"

iii. They mainly live temporaly in caves

iv They ate raw food like maet and fruits because they did not know how to make fire.

6. During this period people did not have permanent shelters. 

  ANSWERS

1ST	2ND	3RD	4TH	5TH

 6. Complete each of the following statements with the correct historical facts

i. The mans major technological innovation during the middle stone Age was___________________

ii. The tittle of the supreme political leader in the Haya was_______________________

iii. A place where books, files, colonial and travelers records are kept is called_______________

iv. The  process by which people create goods to satisfy their needs is___________________

v. The ownership and use of slaves in economic production_____________________________

7. a) What is agriculture?

   b) Explain in short different types of agriculture development in Africa societies.

                                     SECTION B. ( 30 Marks)

8. Write an essay about the effects of the economic interactions among the African

9. Write a short essay on Ngoni migration under the following guidelines 

  i. Meaning 

  ii Participants 

  iii. Causes 

   iv. Effects.

  v. Conclusion 

 10. Explain  the characteristics of communalism mode of production

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMIATIONS

024                                                                 MATHS- TWO

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

• This paper consists of two sections A and B.
• Answer all questions in both sections
• Show clearly all working for each question
• Geometrical instruments and graph paper may be used where necessary

SECTION A (60 MARKS)

1. Write the place value of digits in the brackets

1. 1485361           (8)
2. 7524693            (2)

2.  Write the following into expanded form a) 470059             b) 1290400

3. Round off 309.437 correct to  i) 2-significant figure  ii) 2-decimal places

4. Change the following into 12-hours system   i) 0404 hours  ii) 0028 hours

5. Convert the following into fraction i) 0.34   ii) 2.13

6. Find the greatest number that is exactly divides 360 and 456

7. Find solution of   and show it no the number line.

8. Divide Sh. 1690 among Peter, Juma and Ali in the ratio of 

9. There are 180 members of a committee. In a meeting, were present. How many members were absent?

10. Find    

11. Simplify the following    a)   b)  

12. Solve the following equation

13. Find slope, x-intercept and y-intercept of line 5x-2y-7=0

14. The ratio of exterior to interior angle of regular polygon is 5:7. Find number of sides of the polygon and total degree measure of the polygon.

15.  In a figure beside, AB//CD and line PQ and RS are transversal line. Find values of the angles marked x, y and z

16. In how many years would sum of the money double itself at 8% rate per annum?

17. Factorize the following expression a) 8x² + 2x -3   b) x2 -15x +58

18. By selling a computer for Sh. 800,000/=, a profit of Sh. 200,000/= is earned. Find the percentage profit.

19. Simplify the following i)   ii)

20. Make v subject of the formula the following equation

SECTION B (40 MARKS)

21. a) From the quadratic equation ax²+bx+c=0, show that

      b) By using general formula of quadratic equation solve the following equation

22.Johns father is 5 times older than John and John is twice as his sister Alice. In two years time the sum of their age will be 58. What is their present age? 

 23. a) Simplify the following by rationalizing the denominator

i)     ii) 

b)   Find value of P which makes the following equations perfect square

         i) x² – 8x +P=0   ii) x² - x + P=0

24 a) If   , evaluate: i)       ii)  Find r if

    b) Solve for x the following i) ii)  

25. a) Expand the following  i)     ii)  

       b) Factorize the following  i)    ii)

 

THE UNITED REPUBLIC OF TANZANIA

NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF TANZANIA

FORM TWO NATIONAL ASSESSMENT

031                                                                              PHYSICS

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of TEN (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions 
3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.
6. Where necessary the following constant may be used; 

1. Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10m/s²
2. Density of water = 1g/cm³ or 1000kg/m³

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

(i) The term buoyant mean

1. Float
2. Push
3. Flying
4. Sink

(ii) An ice – cake is pushed to the top of glass of water by

1. Buoyant force
2. Density
3. Compressed air
4. Sinking object

(iii) Force responsible for elongation and restoration of body

1. Torsional force
2. Stretching and restoring force
3. Repulsive force
4. Attractive force

(iv)  The SI –Unit of force is

1. Newton
2. Gravity
3. Meter per second
4. Meter squared.

(v)  The process whereby material loose or gain electrons is known as:-

1. Charging
2. Magnetization
3. Earthing.
4. polarizing

 (vi)  The following are methods of charging.

1. Friction, conduction and reduction
2. Conduction, friction and convection
3. Induction, conduction and Friction.
4. Friction, rubbing, reduction

 (vii) The device which produces numerous positive charges from a single negative charge is called?

1. Gold leaf electroscope
2. Electrophorus
3. Earth wave
4. magnet

(viii) A box block with rectangular shape, measuring 10cm, by 5cm by 5cm by 2cm has  a density of given mass is 200g;

1. 4g/cm³
2. 2g/cm³
3. 1g/cm³
4. 100g/cm³

(ix) Which is not true about relative density?

1. Pure water is used in its calculation
2. Relative density is calculated by comparing its density with water
3. Pure water has density of 1000kg/m³
4. Relative density has no unit.

(x) What happens to its potential energy when object is taken to high attitude?

1. Its potential energy increases
2. Its potential energy decrease
3. Its potential energy remains same
4. None of the above.

(xi) What is the formula of potential energy?

1. Mv²
2. mgh
3. mgh²
4. pgh.

(xii) Why Physics, Chemistry and Biology are natural science subjects?

1. They need practical and theory work for learning
2. They need only theory for learning
3. They need practical work only
4. They need only observation.

(xiii) Which of the following is a safety precaution in the Physics laboratory?

1. Doing experiment in the laboratory
2. Handling of apparatus in the laboratory
3. Use equipment with care in the laboratory
4. Do anything in the laboratory

(xiv) Which instrument will you use to measure accurately the inside diameter of a bottle neck?

1. Tape measure
2. Micrometer screw gauge
3. Meter ruler.
4. Vernier Calipers.

(xv) Which of the following statement is correct about mass?

1. It is measured by beam balance
2. It is measured by spring balance
3. It varies with place
4. It can be zero

(xvi) A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure

1. The volume of liquids
2. The density of liquids 
3. The density of solids
4. The volume of solids.

(xvii) When a body of mass M, is lifted through a height h, it possesses the energy known as

1. Kinetic energy
2. Chemical energy
3. Light energy
4. Potential energy

(xviii) Capacitance is?

1. Ability of the capacitor to resist the flow of electric current.
2. Ability of the resistor to store electric. 
3. Ability of the capacitor to store electric charge.
4. Ability of capacitor to loose charge

 (xix) A giant electric spark that arises due to discharge of atmospheric electricity is known as.

1. Thunderstorm
2. Lightining
3. Electric shock.
4. Static electricity

(xx) Accurate volume of a liquid can be measure by using 

1. Volumetric flask
2. Pipette
3. Burette
4. Cylinder.

2. Match the phase in List A with responses in List B by writing the letter of the correct response in List B.

LIST A	LIST B
Positive charge Cellulose Induction method Gold leaf electroscope Factors affecting capacitance Lightning conductor.	Area, dielectric materials and distance between plates. Detect the presence of charge on a body. Metal rod with tip has sharp spikes attached to a build. Obtained when a body loose electrons. Become positively charged when rubbed with woolen cloth. When two bodies charged and uncharged brought near to each other.

3.  Complete each of the following statements by writing the correct answer in the space provided.

1. Basic physical proportions of measurement which cannot be obtained from any other proportions by either multiplication or division are called……………………
2. Staircases, winding roads uphill, wedges and screw are physical example of……………
3. The resistance of a body to change its state of rest is called……………..
4. Objects which emit light when they are hot are called……………..
5. A property that enables a mosquito to walk in water is…………….

SECTION B (50 Marks)

4. (a) What do you understand by the following terms?

1. Work…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. Energy…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Power……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

    (b) Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10seconds.

   (c) Two capacitors of 20MF and 25MF are connected in 

            (i) In series

            (ii) In parallel.

            What is the effective capacitance for (i) and (ii)?

5. (a) What are the uses of the following devices?

1. Manometer………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Hare’s apparatus (inverted U – tube)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. U – tube

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. Barometer

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

   (b) Why a big Elephant manage to walk comfortably in mad soil without sinking while human being may sink easily?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    (c) Draw a well labeled diagram which demonstrates that liquid pressure depends on depth.

6. (a) Define density………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

    (b) A block of metal of volume 25cm³ was dropped in water and volume raised to 65cm³. Find initial volume of water…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

7. (a) Define relative density………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

    (b) A clean dry beaker has a mass of 400g. 112cm³ Kerosene is poured into the beaker with help of burette, if the mass of beaker and kerosene is 500g, find density of kerosene……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

8. (a) State two factors which pressure in liquids depends ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

    (b) Explain why

1. Sharp knife cuts easily than blunt knife……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. An elephant cannot easily sink in mud………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Tyres of a tractor are wide…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

9. (a) Define the term Osmosis………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

    (b) Explain application of Osmosis in daily life…………………….,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,

10. (a) What is the difference between elastic and plastic materials?,………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  (b) State application of capillarity in daily life. ………………………………………………….

 

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATIO AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

FORM TWO MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

013                                                                             GEOGRAPHY

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
3. All writing must be in blue or black ink.
4. All answers must be written in the space provided.
5. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
6. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (ii), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided.

i. Which of the following is not an aspect of geography?

1. Map reading and photography
2. Different land forms
3. Human and economic activities
4. Human rights.

ii. Major natural regions of the world can also be called?

1. Ocean current regions
2. Weather regions
3. Mountainous regions
4. Climatic regions.

iii. Which one of the following is not a factor to consider while deciding the climate of a place?

1. Prevailing winds
2. Annual rainfall
3. Distance from the ocean
4. Annual range of temperature.

iv. The direction to which compass needle points is called

1. Magnetic north
2. True north
3. Grid north
4. Compass bearing

v.  Cultivation of cash crops based on application of advanced technology is called?

1. Subsistence agriculture
2. A large scale agriculture
3. Mixed system agriculture
4. A small scale agriculture

vi.  The condition of the atmosphere recorded for a short period of time is known as

1. Climate
2. Rainfall
3. Weather
4. Temperature

vii. Intensive farming means:-

1. Large amount of capital or labour are applied in a small piece of land
2. Large amount of capital is not used for a very large piece of land.
3. Very small piece of land is cultivated locally.
4. Subsistence farming basically for food supply in the family.

viii. Extensive farming can be defined as:-

1. Horticulture production in a small piece of land
2. Large area of land are worked by a small labour force.
3. Commercial farming where production is intended for sale and food.
4. Farming whereby people move from one place to another seasonally.

ix. The most common and perhaps the most important of socio – economic activities include:-

1. Pastoralism, cultivation and trading activities
2. Agriculture, trade and cultural activities.
3. Arts, crafts and ceramics
4. Recreation, initiation and traditional healing 

x. The coastal zone people are involved in which type of human activities?

1. Fishing, trading and small scale agriculture
2. Lumbering, trading and hand crafts
3. Initiation, recreation and social activities.
4. Lumbering, mining and small scale agriculture.

2. Match the items in column A with those in column B by writing the letter of the correct answer against its corresponding item number in column A.

 

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

MID TERM EXAMINATION-MARCH 2020

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

SECTION A
COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY

I. Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow:

In some cultures girls are sometimes forced to get married at a very early age. Parents force their daughters into marriage to get the dowry. Another reason is the fear that their daughters might get pregnant before they are properly married. It is considered shameful to the parents for a girl to get pregnant out of wedlock!

Early marriages put girls at a great risk. At that early age, the girls are physically not matured and developed enough to become mothers.

Early marriages also result in early and frequent childbirths and large families.

Forced early marriages deny girls the right to enjoy their childhood, the right to education and the right to choose the husbands of their own age groups and choices. When the girls are forced to marry men who are older than themselves and out of their choices, they are likely to become widows at an early age. After their husbands have died, the young widows are left to take care of their children on their own.

Customs and traditions do not guarantee that a young wife will inherit her husbands property. They violate the girls rights to make informed choices and to own property.

There are other factors too which force girls to engage in sexual relations before they get legal marriages. These include unequal power relations and economic hardships. The girls are exposed to unwanted pregnancies and to sexually transmitted diseases including HIV/AIDS.

Unplanned pregnancies and abortions are common problems among young girls worldwide. This is why girls suffer more from pregnancy related complications and infants deaths.

Choose the best answer for each of the following questions.

 (i) The writer says that girls are forced into early marriages because:-

1. They want to get babies
2. Their parents face economic hardships.
3. They do not fear pregnancies.
4. They want to choose their husbands.

(ii) In order to avoid health risks, girls should get married when:

1. They are young
2. Their dowry is paid
3. They are physically not developed
4. They are fully grown up

(iii) Due to early marriage girls:

1. Enjoy their young
2. Enjoy their right to education
3. Miss their own age – mates
4. Miss their childhood plays.

(iv) A widow is one who has:

1. Been forced to marry young
2. Lost her pregnancy
3. Lost her spouse in death
4. Been left to care for her children.

(v) Most girls are forced to marry men who are:

1. Older than themselves.
2. Young than themselves
3. As old as themselves.
4. From their age group

(vi) The word “wedlock” simply means the state of being?

1. Unmarried
2. Married
3. Traditional
4. Pregnant.

(vii) In the opinion of the writer, early marriages:

1. Deny parents big dowries.
2. Help the girls to get husbands of their choice
3. Are a serious hindrance to the progress of girls
4. Should be discouraged in modern societies.

(viii) The writer is certain that when girls are forced to marry old men they:

1. Will get many children
2. Will end up alone quickly
3. Will be treated.
4. Will become independent of their husbands.

(ix) One of the problems of a young wife is that she has:

1. No guarantee of inheritance
2. The right to get education
3. The right to inherit her husband’s property
4. The right to choose a husband 

(x) In the passage the writer suggests that girls engage in sexual relations because of:

1. Pleasure
2. Dowry
3. New technology
4. Poor living conditions.

2. With reference to the passage you have read, answer the following questions:

1. Mention one reason which makes girls get married early in Africa.
2. Mention one problem which girls face when they are married early.
3. What is the biggest problem facing girls from poor families?
4. Give one effect of the problem mentioned in number (iii) above.
5. In your opinion, what does the passage imply as a solution to the problems of early marriage

SECTION B:

LANGUAGE USE:

3. Match the clauses in column A with the phrases in Column B to make meaningful sentences by writing the correct letter in B against the corresponding item number in A

Column A	Column B
Hard working people are not ready to waste time,….. The factory workers are on strike,…………… Most schools will close down,……………….. Teachers won’t do that,………………… As a teacher, I’m not supposed to misbehave,… I always meet you here,…………..	Aren’t they? Am I? Will they? Don’t I? Don’t they? Are they? Won’t they? Do I? Aren’t I?

4. Arrange the following sentences in a logical order to make a meaningful paragraph. Copy the answer box provided below into your answer booklet and use numbers 2 – 6 to show their logical order. No. (iii) has been done as an example.

1. The flesh of the oyster moved, then it was still.
2. It was the largest pearl in the world
3. Kino quickly pushed his knife into the shell.
4. Kino lifted the flesh and there lay a great pearl
5. The shell tried to close, but Kino pushed hard and the shell fell open.
6. He took the pearl out of the shell and it shone like silver when the sunlight fell on it.

Answers:

Qn. No.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(v)	(vi)
Order of event			1

5. Your family is inviting relatives and friends to a get – together function to be held at your home. Write an invitation card using the information given below.

1. Family name: Mr. and Mrs. Olusanya
2. Purpose of invitation: Birthday of their daughter, Zawadi.
3. Place: The family’s home, house number 13/B/IV, Maduka Street.
4. Date: 15^th November, 2008.
5. Time: 5 pm – 8 pm.
6. Contacts: (Those who won’t attend only): Mrs. Masalu Olusanya (Mob. 0752 – 443388)

SECTION B:

PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

6. Respond to the following questions by writing your answers in the space provided for each question.

1. Do elephants live in the sea?

No………..

1. Is the hyena a fierce animal?

Yes, ……….

1. Does he study hard?

Yes,…………

1. You are ill, aren’t you? Yes,…………..

No,……………

7. Use “borrow” or “lend” to complete the dialogue below correctly.

Ali: Excuse me Mosi, can you ……… me you pen please?

Mosi: I’m sorry, I can’t, I am using it. Why don’t you …………… one from Tossi? She has two.

Ali: But you know she usually doesn’t like people to……… things from her.

Mosi: Strange! She always………… things from us and we …………… her without any objections.

8. Re – write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.

1. The girl is crying. Her bag was stolen (re – write using), “whose”
2. These children are hungry, (Add a question tag)
3. Her son wrote a poem. (Turn the sentence into the negative)
4. Chemistry is more difficult than Physics. (Begin: Physics)
5. The Pastor wrote a letter to my headmaster. (begin: A letter……….)

9. For each of the occupations given in the box below, write the letter of the correct definition. Number (i) is done as an example.

(i) Doctor (iv) Nurse (vii) Carpenter (x) Tailor

(ii) Mechanic (v) Cobbler (viii) Farmer (xi) Mason

(iii) Dentist (iv) Barber (ix) Author

Someone who……………………..

1. Attend to sick people (i) = k
2. Builds house
3. Cuts people’s hair
4. Grows crops
5. Looks after people’s teeth
6. Makes clothes
7. Makes things out of wood
8. Mends shoes
9. Plaits people’s hair
10. Repairs cars
11. Treats people
12. Writes books.

 10. Use the words in the box below to fill in the blanks in the sentences that follow.

Cousin, nephew, niece, brother – in – law, grandmother, sister –in – law, uncle, grandfather, aunt, brother.

1. Your father’s father is your…………….
2. Your mother’s brother is your…………….
3. Your sister’s husband is your………………..
4. Your brother’s wife is your……………..
5. Your mother’s sister is your……………
6. You mother’s son is your…………..
7. Your uncle’s daughter is your…………….
8. Your sister’s daughter is your……………….
9. Your sister’s son is your………………..
10. Your mother’s mother is your………….

11. Select one female character from one of the readers you have read in Form 1 or 2 and analyze her as follows.

• Mention the name of the character
• Name the reader in which she appears
• What she did in the story
• Two reasons why you like or disliked her.

12. Read the following poem the answer the questions that follow:

 How beautiful the rain is!

 After the dust and the heart,

 In the broad and fiery street,

 In the narrow lane,

 How beautiful the rain is!

 How beautiful the rain is!

 Like the tramp of the hoofs,

 How it gushes and struggles out,

 From the throat of the overflowing spout!

QUESTIONS:

1. What is the poem about?
2. How does the poet feel?
3. Why does he feel so? Give two reasons.
4. Give an example of words that rhyme in the poem.

 

THE PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS-MARCH 2020

032                                                                   CHEMISTRY

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of sections A and B with a total of ten (10) questions.
2. Answer all questions in spaces provided.
3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.
6. The following atomic masses may be used; H =1, N =14, O = 16, S = 32, Ca = 40

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) –(x), choose the correct answer from the among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provide.

            (i) All domestic utensils made of iron undergo rusting when exposed to:

1. Air and fire
2. Air and oil
3. Air and water
4. Water and oil

(ii) When a small amount of common salt is dissolved in glass of water the mixture formed is:

1. Heterogeneous
2. Homogeneous
3. Immiscible
4. Suspension

(iii) A chemist should acquire all of the following skills except:

1. Experimentation
2. Observation
3. Problem identification
4. Surgery

(iv) An important property of oxygen which distinguishes it from other gases is that it:

1. Burns and supports combustion
2. Burns but does not support combustion
3. Neither burns nor supports combustion
4. Supports combustion but does not burn.

(v) The process of chlorination in water treatment aims at:

1. Forming suspension
2. Killing micro – organisms
3. Making syrup
4. Removing bad odour

(vi) Class E fire can best be extinguished by using:

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Fire blanket
3. Sand
4. Water

(vii) The following is a set of apparatuses which are used for heating:

1. Crucible, test tube, evaporating dish
2. Evaporating dish, tongs, crucible
3. Test tube, evaporating dish, tongs
4. Tongs, crucible, test tube.

(viii) Which of the following methods can be used to get oil from cotton seeds?

1. Decantation
2. Distillation 
3. Grinding and distillation
4. Grinding followed by squeezing.

(ix) The substance that can be used to extinguish fire are:

1. Carbon dioxide and sand
2. Carbon dioxide and sugar
3. Nitrogen and sand
4. Nitrogen and water

(x) When sugar is dissolved in water, a uniform mixture is formed. The resulting mixture is called a:

1. Solute
2. Solution
3. Solvent
4. Suspension

2.(a)  Match each item in List A with a response in List B by writing its letter below the number of the corresponding item in the table provided.

List A	List B
A method used to separate mixture of two or more liquids that form homogeneous solution by means of fractional column. A substance that absorbs moisture from the atmosphere and dissolves in it. Poisonous gases prepared in it. Produces a “pop” sound Used to prevent direct heat to reach the apparatus	Evaporation Tripod stand Wire gauze Cupboard Fume chamber Hydrogen Oxygen Delinquency hygroscopic

   (b) Fill in the blank spaces by using the appropriate terms

1. In an atom, the effect of the charged nucleons is balanced by the charge of……………..
2. Serum is separated from blood samples by employing a technique called………………..
3. Boiling points of substances reflect the strength of……………….
4. Grinding chalk into a powder involves changing the state of …………………….
5. The insoluble substances formed during filtration are collectively termed as ……………….

SECTION B (80 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

3. (a) Mariam was preparing food foe  her family using hot oil in a frying pan. Accidentally the pan  tripped over and a huge fire spread over her kitchen floor.

1. Mention two extinguishers which would be appropriate for putting out the fire.
2. Which fire extinguisher would be dangerous to use when trying to put out the fire in (a) above? Give reason.

    (b) Mention three conditions for a fire to start

    (c) (i) What is combustion?

          (ii) Give three areas where combustion is applied.

4. (a) In an experiment, two iron nails A and B were used whereby painting was applied on nail A. The two nails were placed in a moist environment and after one month the weight of each nail was determined. Which of the two nails would be heavier? Give reason.

    (b) State the method which will be used to protect each of the following from rusting:

1. Covering iron sheets with a layer of most reactive metals
2. Bicycle chain

5. (a) List down four careers that are a result of studying chemistry.

    (b) The following are possible causes of accidents which can occur in the Chemistry laboratory. State how you can avoid them.

1. Poisonous chemicals left in an unlocked cupboard
2. A student picking up a bottle containing concentrated H₂SO₄ acid by the neck
3. Concentrated acids stored in the upper most shelf of cupboard.

6. (a) Mention four physical properties of water

    (b) What will happen when?

1. A burning splint of wood is introduced into a gas jar containing oxygen gas
2. Oxygen gas reacts with metals
3. Hydrogen gas reacts with oxygen gas

    (c) List four uses of hydrogen in our daily life.

7. (a) Define the following terms as applied in Chemistry.

1. Flame
2. Bunsen burner
3. Laboratory

    (b) List four properties of each of the following:

1. A luminous flame
2. A non – luminous flame

    (c) Give the use of each of the following components which are found in the First Aid Kit.

1. Plaster
2. A pair of scissors
3. Cotton wool
4. Gloves.

8. (a) Define the following terms;

1. Chemistry
2. Element
3. Catalyst

    (b) Give three differences between the following:

1. Compound and mixture
2. Suspension and solution.

9. Gas “L” has the following properties: it is highly flammable, readily combines with other elements, readily reacts with other chemical substances and is a strong reducing agent.

1. Name the gas “L”
2. What is the method used to collect gas”L” in the laboratory? Give a reason.
3. Give four uses of gas “L”

10. (a) Draw a diagram to show laboratory preparation of oxygen using hydrogen peroxide. In the diagram, label all the compounds and elements involved in the preparation.

       (b) Briefly explain how you would distinguish ordinary air from pure oxygen.

       (c) List two chemical properties of oxygen gas

 

THE MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT

FORM TWO MID TERM EXAMINATION- MARCH 2020

062                                                                               BOOK KEEPING

Duration: 2:30 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS.

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of seven (7) questions.
2. Answer all questions.
3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

  (i) A list of debit and credit balances extracted from ledger is known as:-

1. Extracts
2. Transactions
3. Trial balance
4. Balance sheet.

(ii) Which of the following are not advantages of Trial Balance?

1. Help in checking arithmetical accuracy of the ledger entry
2. It shows personal Real and nominal a/c
3. Used in preparation of final accounts
4. Used for decision making by the owner and others.

(iii) ______ is not recorded in trial balance. It is shown in additional information.

1. Opening stock
2. Closing stock
3. Assets
4. Expenses

(iv) The two types of accounts are:-

1. Nominal a/c and Real a/c
2. Personal a/c Nominal a/c
3. Personal and impersonal a/c
4. Nominal and Real a/c

(v) Which of the following is not real account?

1. Building a/c
2. Furniture a/c
3. Debtors a/c
4. Stock a/c

(vi) A ledger comprises of customers accounts who bought goods on credit from business firm?

1. General ledger
2. Sales ledger
3. Purchases ledger
4. Private ledger

(vii) Which of these best describes a balance sheet?

1. A account providing the book balance
2. A record of closing entries
3. A listing of balances
4. A statement of assets.

(viii) The descending order in which current assets should be shown in the balance sheet in:-

1. Stock, debtors, bank, cash
2. Cash, bank, debtors, stock
3. Debtors, stock, bank, cash
4. Stock, debtors, cash, bank

(ix) Which of the following are personal accounts?

1. Buildings and creditors
2. Wages and debtors
3. Debtors and creditors
4. Wages and creditors.

(x) In which account is the net profit of the business determined?

1. Trading account
2. Profit and loss account
3. Cash account
4. Bank account

2. For each of the items (i) – (x), match the descriptions of the terms used in Book Keeping in List A with their corresponding names in List B by writing the letter of the correct response below the corresponding item number in the table provided.

List A

List B

The maximum amount of money an accounting officer can spend. The balance at any point in time remaining to the credit side of the exchequer account The Ministry which has been generally vested the task of accounting for all the government money. Any person who is appointed in writing to authorize the expenditures for specific items of expenditure. Accounts for the basic services provided by the local authorities through the use of the general revenue. A group of people who are relate to each other and are entitled for government monetary benefits. A financial year of the government which starts on 1st July and ends 30th June of every year. Day to day expenses for executing operations of a government. Estimates to cater for the capital of long term projects of the government. Government money for the benefit of all citizens in a country.

Recurrent expenditure Revenue expenditure General fund Family Development expenditure Capital expenditure Special fund Government accounting year Public money Accounting officer Treasury Authorized officer Consolidated fund Warrant holder Ambit of vote

Answers:

List A	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(v)	(vi)	(vii)	(viii)	(ix)	(x)
List B

SECTION B (20 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section

3. Mention five users of accounting information.

1. ………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. ………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. ………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. ………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. ………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. Briefly explain the following terms:

            (a) Double entry book keeping system

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Account

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Discount received

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Debtors

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Current liabilities

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (60 Marks)

Answer all questions in t his section.

5. On 31 Dec. 2007 the cash book balance of Kamwene was Tshs. 25,370. Whereas the bank statement should credit balance. The following were discovered.

1. Cheques not presented for payment Tshs. 12,340/=
2. Cheques paid into bank but not credited by the bank 12,340/=
3. Items shown in the bank statement but not yet entered in the cash book.
4. Bank charges                           240/=
5. Standing order                                    460/=
6. Divided                                               850/=

Required to: 

• Adjust the cash book to show the correct cash book balance
• Prepare a bank reconciliation statement starting with adjusted cash book balance.

6. Jackson commenced a business on 1^st Jan. 2013. The following transactions were concerned:-

Jan. 1: commenced business with Tshs. 400,000 in cash

Jan. 2: purchase furniture by cheque 50,000

Jan. 3: purchased furniture by cash 300,000

Jan. 4: sold goods by cash Tshs. 40,000

Jan. 5: Paid electric bills by cheque 60,000

Jan. 6: paid advertising expenses 200,000

Jan. 7: paid wages 100,000

Jan. 8: sold goods paid by cheque 500,000

Jan. 21: paid transport by cash 60,000

Jan. 22: paid water bill by cheque 40,000

Jan. 23: sold goods by cheque 250,000

Jan. 24: bought goods by cheque 50,000

Jan. 28: bought goods by cash 40,000

Required to: Record the above transactions in two column cash book, balance off and bring down the balances.

7.  Prepare the balance sheet from the following information

Capital                                     14,000

Net profit                                6,000

Drawings                                 5,000

Creditors                                 2,000

Loan from NBC                      12,000

Bank over draft                       4,000

Machine                                  13,000

Motor vans                              4,000

Furniture                                 2,500

Premises                                  5,300

Stock                                       1700

Debtors                                   1500

Cash at Bank                           3,000

Cash in hand                           2,000

 

PRESIDENT’S OFFICE

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND VOCATIONAL TRAINING

MID TERM EXAMINATIONS- MARCH 2020

033        BIOLOGY

Duration: 2:30 Hours

Instructions.

1. This paper consists of sections A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all questions in section A and B and one (1) question from section C
3. All writing must be in blue or black ink except drawing which must be in pencil.
4. Calculators, cellular phones and any unauthorized materials are not allowed in the examination room.
5. Write your Examination Number at the top right corner of every page.

SECTION A (30 Marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given alternatives and write its letter in the box provided.

 (i) An experiment usually tests:

1.              Application
2.               Evaluation
3.               Hypothesis
4.              Problem identified

(ii) Animals show irritability; this means they:

1.              Always move
2.               Are capable of growing
3.               Reproduce
4.              Respond to stimuli

(iii) The movement of substances in and out of the cell is controlled by:

1.              Cell membrane
2.               Cell wall
3.               Cytoplasm
4.              Vacuole

(iv) The ability of the human body to resist infections caused by micro organisms is known as:

1.              Immunity
2.               Inoculation
3.               Treatment
4.              Vaccination

(v) One of the following is not a risky behavior.

1.              Accepting favours and gifts from people of the opposite sex
2.               Having many sexual partners
3.               Keeping good company and avoiding immoral friends
4.              Using drugs such as bhang and cocaine.

(vi) Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults are conditions caused by lack of:

1.              Vitamin A
2.               Vitamin B
3.               Vitamin C
4.              Vitamin D

(vii) Which of the following will be a step to follow in a scientific procedure after formulating a hypothesis?

1.              Conclusion
2.               Experimentation
3.               Observation
4.              Problem identification

(viii) The best evidence that two organisms belong to the same species is that they:

1.              Can breed with other organisms which are not of their kind
2.               Live in the same habitat and have similar ways of nutrition
3.               Produce fertile off- springs when interbred under natural conditions.
4.              Produce infertile off – springs when interbred.

(ix) One of the following diseases is non – communicable:

1.              Cholera
2.               Kwashiorkor
3.               Malaria
4.              Tuberculosis

(x) Absorption of food takes place in the:

1.               Large intestine
2.               Liver
3.               Small intestine
4.              Stomach

2. The following statements are either correct or not correct. Write TRUE if the statement is correct or FALSE if the statement is not correct.

(i)     A cell is the basic functional unit of life

(ii)  A victim of an electric shock should be moved by using metallic object

(iii) Sexually Transmitted Diseases can be treated using painkillers

(iv) The best way to dispose clinical syringes is by recycling

(v)   The use of unsterilized surgical and skin piercing tools can lead to HIV/AIDS transmission

(vi) A group of interdependent organisms living in an environment is called a community

(vii) Animal cells have no chloroplasts

(viii)  Maintaining personal hygiene reduces the risk of infection

(ix) Proteins in the diet are needed for growth and repair

(x)   Malaria is transmitted by a plasmodium

3.

List A	List B
(i)     An enzyme that converts lipids to fatty acids and glycerol (ii)  It contains an acidic medium for digestion (iii) Sites for dumping waste and covering it with soil (iv)     The process of burning waste until it is completely destroyed (v)      The process of turning waste into new products	Cow Duodenum Ferns Human being Incineration Landfills Lipase Pit latrines Recycling Typhoid

b. Complete each of the following statements by writing the correct answer in the space provided.

(i)     The elements required in large quantities are called………………..

(ii)  The loss of nutrients into ground due to water logging…………….

(iii) Classification based on external features only……………

(iv)  Have two life-cycles which alternate to complete life………………

(v)   Organisms that feeds on dead decaying matter………

SECTION B 50 Marks

4. (a) Describe the procedures of giving First Aid to a victim of a snake bite.

    (b) Give a reason as to why it is necessary to put on gloves when giving first Aid to a bleeding person.

5. (a) What is classification?

    (b) List four advantages of fungi

    (c) Outline two disadvantages of fungi

6. (a) (i) What do you understand by the term “laboratory”?

          (ii) Outline four qualities of a good laboratory

    (b) Mention one function of each of the following apparati:

(i)     Petri dish

(ii)  Mortar and pestle

(iii) Hand lens

(iv) Thermometer

7. (a) What is meant by the term “agent of diseases”?
    (b) Name the agent for each of the following diseases:

(i)     Common cold

(ii)  Cholera

(iii) Dysentery

(iv) Bilharzia

8. (a) What do you understand by the term “Puberty”

    (b) Mention four requirements of personal hygiene

    (c) State two ways of maintaining personal hygiene during puberty.

9. (a) What do you understand by the term “water borne diseases” as used in Biology?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

     (b) Name any three water borne diseases.

(i)     ……………………………………………………………………

(ii)  ……………………………………………………………………

(iii) ……………………………………………………………………

     (c) What would happen if a health person drinks unboiled water contaminated with the following?

 (i) Salmonella typhi…………………………………………………………………………………..

 (ii) Entamoeba histolytica……………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C

Essay writing:

10. Write an essay on kwashiorkor using the following guidelines:

• Meaning
• Cause
• Symptoms
• Effects
• Prevention and control

11. Write an essay on tuberculosis using the following guidelines:

• Cause
• Transmission
• Signs/symptoms
• Effects
• Prevention and control